> What happens when Software A uses JDOM 2.0 while Software B
> uses JDOM 1.0, and you want to write Software C that uses
> both Software A and Software B? Can you just drop in JDOM
> 2.0, ignore JDOM 1.0, and have Software B (built maybe
> against an old version of Java) satisfied?
> Anyone have experience with this?

Well if you generalize "JDOM" to "X" and 1.0/2.0 to M/N, then we all have
experience of it, and it's not usually a pleasant memory.

Michael Kay
http://www.saxonica.com/

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